Originally Posted by pnerd
hi,
i am quite new in opening theory. so my questions might sound really stupid. i apologize for that.
now my questions:
1. in the evan's gambit, if black plays 4...Nxb4 instead of 4...Bxb4, what should be white's answer? is that a bad move by black? why? or why not?
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After 5.Nxe5 it seems to me that black has worse problems than he usually does in an Evans gambit and he isn't even up a pawn as compensation! Black has to do something about the threat 6.Bxf7+ or 6.Nxf7 with a fork on the rook and queen. Black also has to be careful as a defensive move like 5...Nh6 doesn't work because of the check on h5 with the queen at the end of the trades on f7 picking up the bishop on c5 and attacking the knight on b4.
1.e4 e5 2.Nf3 Nc6 3.Bc4 Bc5 4.b4 Nxb4 5.Nxe5 Nh6 6.Nxf7
( 6.c3 Nc6 7.Nxf7 Nxf7 8.Bxf7+ Kxf7 9.Qh5+ g6 10.Qxc5 )
6...Nxf7 7.Bxf7+ Kxf7 8.Qh5+ g6 9.Qxc5
Originally Posted by pnerd
2. in the ruy lopez, what if black plays 4...b5 immediately after 1. e4 e5; 2. Nf3 Nc6; 3. Bb5 a6; 4. Ba4
what should the white's answer be after he plays 5. Bb3 ? i mean how should he approach the game after 4...b5 ?
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Often white can just transpose into regular lines. Usually this move order is used to avoid the ruy lopez delayed exchange deferred variation which goes on the theory that black has misdeveloped two pieces when compared to the regular exchange variation.
How white approaches the game after 4...b5 will depend on how black follows up. Often play can transpose back into main lines or take on a life of its own.
Crash